CompTIA SY0-301 zertifizierung

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Exam Code: SY0-301
Prüfungsname: Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version
Aktulisiert: 2014-04-23
Nummer: 745 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following authentication protocols forces centralized wireless authentication?
A. WPA2-Personal
B. WPA2-Enterprise
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.2 Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services
over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending
information?
A. LDAP
B. TACACS+
C. ACLs
D. RADIUS
Answer: B

CompTIA   SY0-301 testantworten   SY0-301

NO.4 Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication?
A. Something you are, something you have
B. Something you have, something you know
C. Something you are near to, something you have
D. Something you have, someone you know
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP?
A. X-Mas attack
B. Fraggle attack
C. Vishing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow
B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application.
D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
Answer: A

CompTIA zertifizierungsantworten   SY0-301   SY0-301

NO.8 Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device?
A. Continuity of operations
B. Input validation
C. Single point of failure
D. Single sign on
Answer: C

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NO.9 A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary
applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the
application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this?
A. Sandbox
B. White box
C. Black box
D. Gray box
Answer: D

CompTIA antworten   SY0-301 prüfung   SY0-301

NO.10 A company has sent all of its private keys to a third party. The third party company has created a
secure list of these keys. Which of the following has just been implemented?
A. Key escrow
B. CRL
C. CA
D. Recovery agent
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following inspects traffic entering or leaving a network to look for anomalies against
expected baselines?
A. IPS
B. Sniffers
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following BEST describes a software vulnerability that is actively being used by Sara and
Jane, attackers, before the vendor releases a protective patch or update?
A. Buffer overflow
B. IV attack
C. Zero day attack
D. LDAP injection
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following BEST allows Pete, a security administrator, to determine the type, source, and
flags of the packet traversing a network for troubleshooting purposes?
A. Switches
B. Protocol analyzers
C. Routers
D. Web security gateways
Answer: B

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NO.14 Sara, a security analyst, discovers which operating systems the client devices on the network are
running by only monitoring a mirror port on the router. Which of the following techniques did Sara use?
A. Active fingerprinting
B. Passive finger printing
C. Protocol analyzing
D. Network enumerating
Answer: B

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NO.15 Sara and Jane, users, are reporting an increase in the amount of unwanted email that they are receiving
each day.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to respond to this issue without creating a lot of
administrative overhead.?
A. Deploy an anti-spam device to protect the network.
B. Update the anti-virus definitions and make sure that it is set to scan all received email
C. Set up spam filtering rules in each user's mail client.
D. Change the firewall settings to block SMTP relays so that the spam cannot get in.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Sara, an IT administrator, wants to protect a cluster of servers in a DMZ from zero day attacks. Which
of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?
A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. Antivirus
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D

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NO.18 The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the
following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Answer: B

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NO.19 A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of
the following BEST describes this system type?
A. NAT
B. NIPS
C. NAC
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.20 Social networking sites are used daily by the marketing team for promotional purposes. However,
confidential company information, including product pictures and potential partnerships, have been
inadvertently exposed to the public by dozens of employees using social networking sites. Which of
following is the BEST response to mitigate this threat with minimal company disruption?
A. Mandate additional security awareness training for all employees.
B. Report each employee to Human Resources for termination for violation of security policies
C. Implement a data loss prevention program to filter email.
D. Block access to social networking sites from the corporate network
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JK0-018

Prüfungsname: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ E2C (2011 Edition))

Exam Code: CA1-001

Prüfungsname: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Beta Exam)

Exam Code: SY0-301

Prüfungsname: CompTIA (Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version)

Exam Code: JK0-017

Prüfungsname: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Project+ Certification Exam)

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NO.1 Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: D

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NO.2 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

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NO.3 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: C

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NO.5 In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the following information:
Pessimistic estimate is 30 days
Most Likely estimate is 15 days
Optimistic estimate Is 10 days
Which of the following is the expected duration for this scheduled activity?
A. 11 days
B. 17 days
C. 25 days
D. 29 days
Answer: C

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NO.7 A project has been cancelled during the execution phase. Which of the following steps should be
taken?
A. Continue to work the project.
B. Finish the project charter and project plan.
C. Complete lessons learned document.
D. Develop the project transition plan.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone difference
Answer: BD

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NO.10 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: AE

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NO.13 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017 prüfungsfragen

NO.15 Which of the following tools would be used to determine the relationship between two changed
variables?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AB

CompTIA zertifizierungsantworten   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.17 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: C

CompTIA zertifizierungsantworten   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.18 There are three teams assigned to the same project. Two of the project teams are ahead of schedule;
however, the product does not meet the needed quality standards. The third project team is behind
schedule, but their product meets the quality standards. Which of the following should be the NEXT step
for the project manager?
A. Inform the stakeholders that the project is behind schedule.
B. Meet with the teams to clarify the schedule and the quality standards expected.
C. Crash the schedule to meet the project timeline.
D. Fast track the schedule to complete the project on time without impacting the quality of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.20 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together. This is an example of
which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

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NO.21 The project cost performance index is 1.2 and the project manager has spent $71,248 dollars to date.
The project is currently 50 percent complete. Which of the following is the earned value (EV)?
A. $35,624.00
B. $59,373.33
C. $71,243.00
D. $35,497.60
Answer: A

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NO.22 A project manager has been informed that a project deliverable must be completed by September 1st.
Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
A. Project assumption
B. Project constraint
C. Project risk
D. Acceptance criteria
Answer: B

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NO.23 In which of the following situations would a risk be placed in the upper right quadrant of a risk matrix?
A. The team identified a risk to have a medium probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
B. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
C. The team identified a risk to have a low probability of occurrence and a high impact on project success.
D. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a medium impact on project
success.
Answer: B

CompTIA zertifizierungsfragen   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.24 Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary?
A. A high level requirements document used to create the WBS.
B. An alphabetical listing of WBS components detailing their associated project schedule dependencies
C. An organizational reference defining how WBS levels must be decomposed.
D. A supporting document that provides more detail for the WBS components.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.27 The EV of a particular project is $6 million. The CV is -$340,000. Which of the following can be
determined from this information?
A. The project costs are currently under-budget.
B. The AC is less than the EV.
C. The EV Is higher than the AC.
D. The project costs are currently over-budget.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.30 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SY0-301

Prüfungsname: CompTIA (Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version)

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NO.1 The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the
following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow
B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application.
D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device?
A. Continuity of operations
B. Input validation
C. Single point of failure
D. Single sign on
Answer: C

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NO.5 Sara, a security analyst, discovers which operating systems the client devices on the network are
running by only monitoring a mirror port on the router. Which of the following techniques did Sara use?
A. Active fingerprinting
B. Passive finger printing
C. Protocol analyzing
D. Network enumerating
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending
information?
A. LDAP
B. TACACS+
C. ACLs
D. RADIUS
Answer: B

CompTIA   SY0-301   SY0-301   SY0-301   SY0-301

NO.7 Which of the following inspects traffic entering or leaving a network to look for anomalies against
expected baselines?
A. IPS
B. Sniffers
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP?
A. X-Mas attack
B. Fraggle attack
C. Vishing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: B

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NO.10 A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of
the following BEST describes this system type?
A. NAT
B. NIPS
C. NAC
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication?
A. Something you are, something you have
B. Something you have, something you know
C. Something you are near to, something you have
D. Something you have, someone you know
Answer: A

CompTIA   SY0-301   SY0-301

NO.12 Which of the following authentication protocols forces centralized wireless authentication?
A. WPA2-Personal
B. WPA2-Enterprise
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following BEST describes a software vulnerability that is actively being used by Sara and
Jane, attackers, before the vendor releases a protective patch or update?
A. Buffer overflow
B. IV attack
C. Zero day attack
D. LDAP injection
Answer: C

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NO.14 Sara, an IT administrator, wants to protect a cluster of servers in a DMZ from zero day attacks. Which
of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?
A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. Antivirus
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following BEST allows Pete, a security administrator, to determine the type, source, and
flags of the packet traversing a network for troubleshooting purposes?
A. Switches
B. Protocol analyzers
C. Routers
D. Web security gateways
Answer: B

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NO.16 Social networking sites are used daily by the marketing team for promotional purposes. However,
confidential company information, including product pictures and potential partnerships, have been
inadvertently exposed to the public by dozens of employees using social networking sites. Which of
following is the BEST response to mitigate this threat with minimal company disruption?
A. Mandate additional security awareness training for all employees.
B. Report each employee to Human Resources for termination for violation of security policies
C. Implement a data loss prevention program to filter email.
D. Block access to social networking sites from the corporate network
Answer: A

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NO.17 Sara and Jane, users, are reporting an increase in the amount of unwanted email that they are receiving
each day.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to respond to this issue without creating a lot of
administrative overhead.?
A. Deploy an anti-spam device to protect the network.
B. Update the anti-virus definitions and make sure that it is set to scan all received email
C. Set up spam filtering rules in each user's mail client.
D. Change the firewall settings to block SMTP relays so that the spam cannot get in.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services
over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
Answer: B

CompTIA   SY0-301   SY0-301   SY0-301 prüfungsfrage

NO.19 A company has sent all of its private keys to a third party. The third party company has created a
secure list of these keys. Which of the following has just been implemented?
A. Key escrow
B. CRL
C. CA
D. Recovery agent
Answer: A

CompTIA prüfungsunterlagen   SY0-301   SY0-301

NO.20 A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary
applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the
application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this?
A. Sandbox
B. White box
C. Black box
D. Gray box
Answer: D

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