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Exam Code: GSLC
Prüfungsname: GIAC (GIAC Security Leadership Certification (GSLC))

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NO.1 You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most
concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What
method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Automated penetration testing
B. Code review
C. Manual penetration testing
D. Vulnerability scanning
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet
surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Spyware
B. Honeypot
C. Worm
D. Malware
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following viruses is designed to prevent antivirus researchers from examining its code by
using various methods that make tracing and disassembling difficult?
A. Armored virus
B. Stealth virus
C. Multipartite virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: A

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NO.4 John works as a Programmer for We-are-secure Inc. On one of his routine visits to the company, he
noted down the passwords of the employees while they were typing them on their computer screens.
Which of the following social engineering attacks did he just perform?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Important user posing
C. Dumpster diving
D. Authorization by third party
Answer: A

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The company's network is connected to the Internet
through a T1 line. The firewall is configured on the network for securing the internal network from the
intruders on the Internet. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. You are designing a
public key infrastructure (PKI) for the network. The security policy of the company states that all users
should use smart cards for authentication. Select and place the type of certificate authority (CA) that is
required to be configured on the network to implement the security policy of the company.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are the examples of administrative controls?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security policy
B. Auditing
C. Security awareness training
D. Data Backup
Answer: A, C

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NO.7 Which system is designed to analyze, detect, and report on security-related events.?
A. HIPS
B. NIPS
C. NIDS
D. HIDS
Answer: B

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NO.8 Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following provides security by implementing authentication and encryption on Wireless
LAN (WLAN)?
A. WEP
B. WAP
C. L2TP
D. IPSec
Answer: A

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NO.10 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Windows Server
2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single
domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2008. All client
computers on the network run Windows Vista Ultimate.
You are configuring a public key interface (PKI) to support domain users and computers. All users will use
smart cards for logon. You have configured a global group named SCIssuer that will issue smart cards for
all domain users. A file server named SecServer is configured on the network. The certificate-based
IPSec encryption is required for all communications to and from the SecServer server. A VPN server is
configured on the network to enable sales managers to connect to the network remotely using their
laptops which run Windows Vista Ultimate. The L2TP connection is required for the VPN server. Place the
users, computers, and groups to the certificate templates that are required for implementing the PKI
infrastructure.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A wireless network uses multiple modulation schemes to make the signal strong so that it can travel far.
These modulation schemes work with a certain IEEE standard. Choose and drop the correct standards in
the right pane according to the modulation scheme.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is used to describe the type of FTP access in which a user does not have
permissions to list the contents of directories, but can access the contents if he knows the path and file
name?
A. Secure FTP
B. Blind FTP
C. Passive FTP
D. Hidden FTP
Answer: B

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NO.13 Janet is the project manager of the NHQ Project for her company. Janet is nearly done leading the
project and there have been no cost or schedule overruns in the development of the new software for her
company. The project team has been completing their work on time and there is still $75,000 left in the
project budget. Janet decides to have the project team implement some extra features to the project
scope to use all of the $75,000 in the budget even though the customer didn't specifically ask for the
added features. This scenario is an example of which one of the following?
A. Scope creep
B. Gold plating
C. Change management
D. Value added change
Answer: B

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NO.14 Fill in the blank with the appropriate type of router.
A ______ router performs packet-filtering and is used as a firewall.
A. screening
Answer: A

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows
Server 2008. The company's headquarters is located at Los Angeles. A branch office of the company is
located at Denver. You are about to send a message to Rick who is a Network Administrator at Denver.
You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following
keys will you use to encrypt the message?
A. Your public key
B. The recipient's private key
C. The recipient's public key
D. Your private key
Answer: C

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NO.16 Rick, the Network Administrator of the Fimbry Hardware Inc., wants to design the initial test model for
Internet Access. He wants to fulfill the following goals:
No external traffic should be allowed into the network.
Administrators should be able to restrict the websites which can be accessed by the internal
users.
Which of the following technologies should he use to accomplish the above goals? (Click the Exhibit
button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
A. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
B. Network Address Translator (NAT)
C. Firewall
D. Proxy Server
E. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
Answer: D

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NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. The domain functional level is set to Windows Server 2003. You have configured an
Active Directory-integrated DNS zone on the network. A new security policy dictates that each incoming
DNS query should be recorded. Which of the following steps will you take to implement the new security
policy?
A. Create a GPO.
Configure Audit Object Access.
Attach the GPO to the domain.
B. Do nothing, each incoming DNS queries is recorded by default in DNS.LOG file.
C. Enable debug logging on the DNS server.
D. Create a new OU.
Move the DNS server account to the OU.
Create a GPO.
Configure Audit Logon events.
Attach the GPO to the OU.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following applications would be considered a data warehousing application?
A. Golf score tracking
B. Badge reader
C. Fraud detection
D. eCommerce site
Answer: C

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NO.19 Mark works as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 Active
Directory domain-based network. The domain contains one hundred Windows XP Professional client
computers. Mark is deploying an 802.11 wireless LAN on the network. The wireless LAN will use Wired
Equivalent Privacy (WEP) for all the connections. According to the company's security policy, the client
computers must be able to automatically connect to the wireless LAN. However, the unauthorized
computers must not be allowed to connect to the wireless LAN and view the wireless network. Mark wants
to configure all the wireless access points and client computers to act in accordance with the company's
security policy. What will he do to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open system.
B. Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.
C. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key.
D. Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.
E. Broadcast SSID to connect to the access point (AP).
F. On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.
Answer: C, D. F

NO.20 The promiscuous mode is a configuration of a network card that makes the card pass all traffic it
receives to the central processing unit rather than just packets addressed to it. Which of the following
tools works by placing the host system network card into the promiscuous mode?
A. Sniffer
B. THC-Scan
C. NetStumbler
D. Snort
Answer: A

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NO.21 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A_______ is a computer system on the Internet that is expressly set up to attract and trap people who
attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems.
A. honeypot
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following protocols is used as a transport protocol for Internet dial-up connections?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. DHCP
D. PPP
Answer: D

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NO.23 You are the project manager for your organization and are trying to determine which vendor your
organization will use. You have determined that any vendor that would like to bid on your project work will
need to have a Microsoft Certified System Engineer on staff, have eight years of Cisco experience, and
have at least two references from similar projects. What have you created in this scenario?
A. Screening system for the vendors
B. Weighting system for the vendors
C. Preferred vendors list
D. Bidders conference
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following encryption algorithms is applied in the PGP encryption system?
A. TDE
B. Triple DES
C. Blowfish
D. IDEA
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following are the goals of risk management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Identifying the risk
B. Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure
C. Identifying the accused
D. Assessing the impact of potential threats
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.26 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
domain-based network. The network has three Windows Server 2008 member servers and 150 Windows
Vista client computers. According to the company's security policy, you want to apply a firewall profile to
the network.Choose the firewall profiles supported by Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following tools is based on Linux and used to carry out the Penetration Testing?
A. JPlag
B. BackTrack
C. Vedit
D. Ettercap
Answer: B

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NO.28 Drag and Drop the layers of TCP/IP model according to their level of data encapsulation.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.29 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Windows Server
2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single
domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2008. All client
computers on the network run Windows Vista Ultimate. You configure a public key infrastructure (PKI) on
the network. You configure a root CA and a subordinate CA on the network. For security reasons, you
want to take the root CA offline. You are required to configure the CA servers to support for certificate
revocation.
Choose the steps you will take to accomplish the task.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following options is an approach to restricting system access to authorized users?
A. MIC
B. MAC
C. RBAC
D. DAC
Answer: C

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IIBA CBAP zertifizierungsfragen

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Exam Code: CBAP
Prüfungsname: IIBA (Cetified business analysis professional (CBAP) appliaction)

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NO.1 You are creating the solution scope for an identified problem in your organization. You are working with
several stakeholders during this process including the domain subject matter expert, the implementation
subject matter expert, the project manager, and the sponsor. Which of these stakeholders will be
responsible for writing the project scope?
A. Domain subject matter expert
B. Business analyst
C. Project manager
D. Sponsor
Answer: C

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NO.2 Fred's organization is using a plan-driven approach for the business analysis deliverables. In this
approach how will the requirements be captured?
A. Fred will use the appropriate documentation at the discretion of the business analysis team .
B. Fred will use the project management information system.
C. Fred will use whatever business analysis forms are most appropriate.
D. Fred will use standardized templates.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When do change requests generally increase in a project?
A. During the project's launch.
B. Towards the beginning of the project.
C. During the project scope management processes.
D. Towards the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the
business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?
A. Ranking of approaches
B. Decision analysis
C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints
D. Alternative generation
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with Tim to identify the
assumptions within the business solution. Which one of the following is an assumption?
A. The vendor believes the hardware should arrive by December 1
B. The software must be compatible with Windows Vista
C. The software must cost less than $99 per license
D. The hardware must costs less than $450 per unit.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have identified a task in your task list that cannot be completed until the inspector for the project
signs off on the initial deliverables. The inspector's signoff on the initial deliverables is called what?
A. Assumption
B. Dependency
C. Milestone
D. Constraint
Answer: B

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NO.7 Ben is the business analyst for his organization. Ben is currently working on a solution to improve a
laser printer. He has taken the laser printer apart, identified each component, and documented each
component's purpose. What type of requirements organization is Ben doing in this scenario?
A. Process modeling
B. Data modeling
C. Functional decomposition
D. Scope modeling
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few requirements. Management
would still like you to create a method to trace the few requirements for this project. What type of matrix
would be best in this instance?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. RACI matrix
C. Coverage matrix
D. Requirements trace matrix
Answer: C

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NO.9 What part of defining the business needs process will evaluate the ends that the organization is
seeking to achieve?
A. Business goals and objectives
B. Alternative identification
C. Solution assessment
D. Requirements
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the solution has been implemented in
production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are working with Terry on the conduct stakeholder analysis task as part of the business analysis
duties in your company. Terry wants to know why it's so important to identify stakeholders so early in the
business analysis duties. Which one of the following statements best addresses the need to identify the
stakeholders early on in the business analysis duties?
A. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to report to.
B. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to bill for the project.
C. It's important to identify the stakeholder so the business analyst can help ensure the timely delivery of
the requirements deliverables.
D. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the stakeholders know who the business analyst is.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What type of a business analysis approach focuses on the rapid delivery of business value in short
iterations?
A. Risk-driven
B. Change-driven
C. Risk-laden
D. Profit-driven
Answer: B

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NO.13 One of the processes within requirements analysis is to prioritize requirements. As a business analyst
why would you ever want to prioritize requirements?
A. You may need to determine the cost of each requirement.
B. You may need to determine the schedule for each requirement.
C. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so the analysis and
implementation efforts focus on the most critical requirements.
D. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so additional risk analysis can be
completed on those requirements.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are the business analyst for your organization and are working with Jennifer to conduct
stakeholder analysis. You would like to create a RACI chart to help with the roles of the people involved in
the stakeholder analysis process. Jennifer is not familiar with this chart and asks what does RACI mean.
Which one of the following best describes the RACI chart in the conduct stakeholder analysis process?
A. It's a matrix that uses the Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform tasks as part of the
stakeholder analysis process.
B. It's a role and responsibility chart that identifies when stakeholders are needed in the business analyst
duties.
C. It's a matrix that uses Role, Action, Consult, and Inform as part of the conduct stakeholder analysis
process.
D. It's a rule that the business analyst can use to identify all of the needed stakeholders: roles, actions,
communications, and interest.
Answer: A

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NO.15 The business analysis approach generally defines all of the following attributes except for which one?
A. Requirements for solutions acceptance
B. Deliverables
C. Team roles
D. Analysis technique
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are the business analyst for your organization. Gary and Janet, two key stakeholders in the project,
are in disagreement over a requirement for the type of software to be installed on the server your solution
calls for. What must happen in this instance before formal approval can be offered?
A. The conflict will need to be resolved through research, resolution, or through a third-party mediation.
B. Gary and Janet will need to determine who has seniority in the company to determine which
requirement takes precedence.
C. The conflict will need to be removed from the solution scope until Gary and Janet come to a solution.
D. The business analyst will need to make a decision on which requirement is most appropriate.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a model of
the requirements so the stakeholders can better understand the requirements and the project as a whole.
Which of the following statements best describes a model?
A. Models are slices of the project solution.
B. Models simplify the requirements for common stakeholders.
C. Models are statistics for the return on investment, time saved, and other mathematics.
D. Models abstract and simplify reality.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions available to an identified
problem. You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best choice for your
organization. Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated solutions for
your organization?
A. Scoring system
B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria
C. Vendor assessment
D. Voting system
Answer: A

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NO.19 When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis, how are
communications managed?
A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on the
frequency of communication.
B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face channels.
C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal communications.
D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management wants you to prioritize the identified
requirements by the requirements that have the highest likelihood of success. Why would management
want you to prioritize the requirements with this factor even though some of the requirements may be
difficult to implement?
A. They want a fast return on investment.
B. They want to show early success in the implementation to the project stakeholders.
C. They don't understand the requirements.
D. They want to avoid penalties or fines due to a pending law.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs. Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise
analysis tasks.?
A. Assumptions and constraints
B. Stakeholder concerns
C. Solution performance assessment
D. Solution approach
Answer: D

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NO.22 You are the business analyst for your organization and are creating the solution scope definition.
Which of the following should be included in the solution scope definition?
A. Business case
B. Technical dependencies
C. Elicitation techniques
D. Organization readiness assessment
Answer: B

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NO.23 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a method to
store the project requirements including those under development, under review, and the requirements
which have been approved. What is management asking you to create?
A. A change management system
B. A repository
C. A project scope statement
D. A requirements register
Answer: B

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NO.24 Paul is the business analyst for his organization. He is examining a single solution to determine if the
solution he and his team have identified carries enough business value to justify its implementation. What
business analysis process is Paul performing in this scenario?
A. Define transition requirements
B. Assess proposed solution
C. Assess organizational readiness
D. Allocate requirements
Answer: B

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NO.25 Gary is the business analyst for his organization and he is preparing a presentation about the
requirements for a large software development project. Before Gary makes the presentation what should
he do as part of his preparation for the presentation?
A. Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.
B. Confirm that he has the authority to host the presentation.
C. Confirm that the stakeholders have signed off on the requirements.
D. Hire a scribe to keep the minutes of the meeting.
Answer: A

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NO.26 All of the following stakeholders participate in the prioritization of requirements except for which one?
A. Implementation subject matter expert
B. Project team
C. Domain subject matter expert
D. Project manager
Answer: B

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NO.27 Wanda is the business analyst for her organization and she is currently working on the specify and
model requirements process. One of the elements of this process is the documentation of the textual
requirements. Wanda must describe the capabilities of the solution, any conditions that must exist for the
requirements to operate, and what third component of the textual requirement?
A. Any constraints that may prevent the solution from fulfilling the requirement
B. Write in the active voice
C. Describe a situation or problem
D. Express only one requirement at a time
Answer: A

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NO.28 What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the level of formality that is
appropriate for the requirements?
A. Requirements management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Scope management plan
D. Business analysis communication plan
Answer: D

IIBA   CBAP prüfung   CBAP   CBAP

NO.29 Sally is the business analyst for her organization. Sally and her business analysis team is currently
using a business analysis approach to determine what the competition of her organization is offering
prospective clients. She is trying to identify solutions to increase revenue by remaining competitive with
the competition. What business analysis approach is Sally and her business analysis team using?
A. Business rules analysis
B. Functional decomposition
C. Focus groups
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

IIBA   CBAP prüfungsfragen   CBAP   CBAP   CBAP

NO.30 Nancy has asked you to trace a particular requirement for her. What does 'to trace a requirement'
mean?
A. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links risk,
cost, quality, and scope elements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by
the team and to solution components.
B. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team
and to solution components.
C. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to components in the project's work breakdown structure.
D. Tracing a requirement means to track a requirements from its first identification all the way to its
completion to see what issues, risks, costs, quality, and defects have surrounded the requirement
Answer: B

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Prüfungsname: Google (Google Reporting and Analysis Exam Practice Test)

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NO.1 Ben is reviewing the Google Analytics report for his website. He's examining the e-commerce reports
to determine how well his sales have been in proportion to the traffic he's received. Ben would like to see
the ratio of actual sales from his website in relation to the amount of traffic he's received. Within the
e-commerce section of Google Analytics what report should Ben utilize?
A. Total revenue
B. Visits to Purchase
C. Conversion rate
D. Average order value
Answer: C

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NO.2 Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads - one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups - one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns - one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it's the most common of the four languages she's targeting.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are a Google AdWords consultant to a company that sells magic tricks, stage props, and costumes
for theatres. Their website is robust, full of good articles and keywords, and
wellorganized.
As their new Google AdWords consultant, which one of the following AdWords strategies would you
recommend for their different lines of products?
A. Create separate campaigns for product line: one for magic tricks, one for stage props, and one for
costumes.
B. Create one campaign for all of their products to maximize ad exposure.
C. Create a campaign based on their products and use placements to target their audience.
D. Create keywords that are specific to purchasing magic tricks, stage props, or costumes.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are a Google AdWords consultant for your client and you're helping them optimize their Google
AdWords ads to increase their return on investment. Google recommend three optimization approaches
to increase return on investment. Which of the following is NOT an activity that you should do to improve
ROI for your client's ads?
A. Define a clear call-to-action
B. Filter out unqualified clicks
C. Relate ads to their landing pages
D. Include deals and benefits
Answer: D

Google   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting prüfungsfrage   adwords-reporting

NO.6 You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are a Google AdWords consultant for a client. You've created a Google AdWords campaign for
your client's website and you've identified 30 keywords for the campaign. You'd like to use a Google tool
to help you identify additional keywords through synonyms and different spellings.
What Google AdWords tool would you use?
A. Keyword Tool Supercharger
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. AdWords Editor
Answer: C

Google prüfungsfragen   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting

NO.8 How is an ad's Clickthrough rate calculated?
A. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the number of impressions.
B. It's the number of clicks an ad receives from anywhere in the Google Search or Google Content
Network.
C. It's the total number of clicks an ad receives from the Google Content Network.
D. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the cost of each click.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You have added "coffee cups" as a keyword to your Google AdWords campaign. Which of the
following Google searches would cause your ad to display?
A. Only searches for "coffee cups" as it's using the exact match options.
B. Only search for "coffee cups" (lower cased) as it's using the case sensitive options.
C. Any queries that search for "coffee cups" in quotation marks.
D. Any queries that include "coffee cups" in the search, such as yellow coffee cups or coffee cups sale.
Answer: D

Google   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting

NO.10 When you configure a new action for Google AdWords conversion tracking, there is a customized field
called "other" and four other tracking purpose fields. Which of the following is not a valid tracking purpose
for conversion tracking?
A. Download
B. Signup
C. View of a key page
D. Purchase/Sale
Answer: A

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NO.11 Holly is the webmaster for her company's website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

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NO.12 Google determines a quality score to evaluate keyword relevance. The higher the quality score, the
better the ad will perform for your site. There are several factors that go into determining your quality
score, which include your clickthrough rate, the relevance of your ad text, keyword, and what is the other
factor?
A. Domain name
B. History of Google AdWords
C. Negative keywords
D. Landing page
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the
quality score?
A. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
B. The lower a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
C. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
Answer: A

Google   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting

NO.14 You are exploring Google Analytics for a website you have created. In Google Analytics, you would like
to configure the dashboard's graph to look like the one in the figure below. What are the appropriate steps
to create this graph measuring total visits and new visits for your website?
A. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visits and % New Visits.
B. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
C. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
D. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visits and % New Visits.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are configuring goals for a large complex website. How many goals can you create for each website
profile in Google Analytics?
A. 20
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Answer: A

Google   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting

NO.16 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you're interested in seeing your most
popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B

Google zertifizierung   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting zertifizierung   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting

NO.17 Jane is using Google AdWords and she's receiving a moderate return on investment for budget. Jane
would like to use a targeting tool to help her improve her Google AdWords program. Which of the
following is a target tool that will help Jane to increase her ROI for her Google AdWords?
A. Conversion Tracking
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. Traffic Estimator
Answer: C

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NO.18 Doug is a Google AdWords consultant to a client who is using conversion tracking. The client's goal is
to bring web visitors to his website, and to get the clients sign up for a free newsletter. The client does not
sell a product or service as a result of the conversion, but only the free newsletter is offered. The client
has asked Doug to calculate the return on investment, for the conversions that have been made as a
result of the Google AdWords campaign. If the client is not selling a product or service, how can Doug find
the return on investment?
A. Doug would need to know the value of the newsletter.
B. Doug needs to know the product cost of the client, to find the return on investment.
C. You can't track the ROI if there's nothing for sale as a result of the conversion.
D. Doug needs to know what the final cost of the newsletter would be.
Answer: A

Google   adwords-reporting   adwords-reporting prüfung   adwords-reporting

NO.19 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he
uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for
customers that complete the 'contact me' field on his website to track return on investment for the
marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the
configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts
through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the 'metric goal' field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose
"dollars" in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the 'goal value' field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he
has created for the 'contact me' form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the "goal
completion" field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Holly is creating a new custom report in Google Analytics. When Holly creates a new report how many
dimensions can she include in the report?
A. Seven
B. One
C. Five
D. Ten
Answer: C

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SUN 310-811 prüfungsunterlagen

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Exam Code: 310-811
Prüfungsname: SUN (Sun Certified MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Part II)

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NO.1 Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same
as the login used to access the operating system.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

SUN   310-811   310-811 prüfungsunterlagen   310-811   310-811 testantworten

NO.2 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed
later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811   310-811 originale fragen

NO.4 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

SUN prüfungsunterlagen   310-811   310-811

NO.5 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: ABC

SUN   310-811   310-811

NO.6 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

SUN   310-811   310-811 echte fragen   310-811   310-811 originale fragen   310-811

NO.7 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world.City to it and preload the index?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

SUN   310-811   310-811 prüfung

NO.8 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE.
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811 echte fragen   310-811   310-811

NO.9 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

SUN   310-811 testantworten   310-811 testantworten

NO.10 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811 exam fragen

NO.11 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811

NO.12 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

SUN zertifizierung   310-811 zertifizierungsantworten   310-811

NO.13 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811 dumps

NO.14 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

SUN   310-811 prüfungsfrage   310-811 prüfungsunterlagen   310-811   310-811

NO.15 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811

NO.16 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database. You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: CD

SUN originale fragen   310-811 originale fragen   310-811   310-811   310-811 prüfungsfragen

NO.17 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment |
| Name | char(35) | | | | |
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | | |
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause. A
temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

SUN prüfungsunterlagen   310-811   310-811 zertifizierungsantworten

NO.18 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the
changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does
editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: BCD

SUN   310-811 zertifizierungsantworten   310-811 exam fragen   310-811

NO.19 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

SUN   310-811   310-811   310-811 zertifizierung

NO.20 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

SUN   310-811 zertifizierung   310-811   310-811 exam fragen   310-811 testantworten

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SNIA S10-101 Prüfung Übungen und Antworten

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Exam Code: S10-101
Prüfungsname: SNIA (Snia Storage Network Foundations Exam)

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NO.1 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B.Supports up to 126 devices.
C.Lowers propagation delay.
D.Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Correct:A D

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.2 Which two have World Wide Names? (Choose two.)
A.switches
B.disk arrays
C.zone sets
D.servers
E.HBAs
Correct:A E

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.3 What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A.300 MBps
B.1200 MBps
C.1800 MBps
D.2400 MBps
Correct:D

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.4 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A.in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B.when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C.in the event of litigation
D.when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Correct:C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.5 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 3
D.RAID 5
E.RAID 10
Correct:C D

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.6 What is a common type of symmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A.DEC
B.AES
C.Turing
D.SSL
Correct:B

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.7 What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A.It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B.It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C.It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D.It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Correct:A

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.8 What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A.flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B.flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C.quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
D.flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Correct:C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.9 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.greater security exposure
B.lower cost infrastructure
C.can use existing network management tools
D.lower CPU overhead
Correct:B C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.10 What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A.Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B.Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C.Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D.Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Correct:C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.11 What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave
laser at 1 Gbps?
A.500 meters
B.300 meters
C.150 meters
D.70 meters
Correct:A

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.12 Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Correct:A

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.13 Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server
backplane?
A.gigabit link module
B.interposer card
C.inter-switch link
D.host bus adapter
Correct:D

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.14 Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A.tier 4
B.tier 3
C.tier 2
D.tier 1
Correct:D

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.15 What describes RAID 0?
A.mirroring
B.parallel access with parity
C.striping
D.independent access with interleaved parity
Correct:C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.16 Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with three (3) storage tiers?
A.tape vault
B.Fibre Channel disk array with dual controllers
C.Nearline storage
D.intelligent storage virtualization
Correct:C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.17 Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A.SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B.SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C.SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D.SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Correct:C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.18 What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation
for a financial services customer?
A.data integrity
B.data redundancy
C.disk latency of less than 15ms
D.high availability
Correct:A

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.19 Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two.)
A.direct access to data is available from single server
B.only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces
C.storage capacity is captive to a single server
D.storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network
E.attached to the host computer by a switch
Correct:A C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

NO.20 You no longer have any port availability in the company's switch fabric. There is a
decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the
cause of the problem?
A.The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B.The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C.A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D.The domain priority is inconsistent.
Correct:C

SNIA prüfungsfrage   S10-101 exam fragen   S10-101   S10-101   S10-101

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